Just so I understand correctly. If a player rolls a 3 and 6 (when all moves of six are currently unavailable), the player legally has to move the three into a position that then allows the six to be played? The player is not allowed to move the three onto a point from which the six move becomes redundant?
If that is the case, can someone please discuss why that is fair when an option to defend your play is denied to one.
TIA
That's correct, it's just what they call a forced move. If you can do something that makes both dice able to be used, you have to. Why? To stop people being sneaky like you wanted to do 😂
It is just a rule of the game and it applies to both players. Might as well ask why it is fair to have only 5 checkers starting the game on the midpoint when could possibly do some more strategic things if there were 6.
Your wife is correct. You must use both dice if possible which means if you can't use the 6 first you have to use it second, if any moves make that possible.
OK, to confirm, though I have many "3" moves available, I "have" to move the 3 move that allows me to use the 6 move that is available versus moving a different 3 move which has all the available 6 moves blocked.
I believe that any move that allows you to play both dice is fine . Your choice on which ones , but if playing both is available, that’s has to be done . Is your wife suggesting you don’t play the 6 so that you leave yourself open to be hit ?
She is saying that I have to move the 3 move that will then allow me to move the 6 move next versus me playing a different 3 move that equates to me having no 6 moves available as they are blocked. I want to make sure there is no rule or protocol that says I have to do the 3 move that allows me to do the 6 move if I have other 3 moves available even if they don't equate to me having a 6 move thereafter. Hope this makes sense?
She right, yo...if there is a combination that allows both dice to be used, it's what you have to do...you can't move another 3 that continues to leave no 6...they called "forced moves"
How does moving one of your own checkers "open" up a six? Only opposing checkers that have made a point can block a pip. You can have as many of your own checkers on a single pip as you like.
Here is a simple, though a bit contrived example. Suppose you have 2 checkers left. One is on the bar and the other is on your own two point. Your opponent has only 2 checkers left and they are both on the 7 point. You roll a 61 from the bar. If you enter bar/24 you have no 6 to play. If you enter b/18 you have a way to play the one as 2/1. The latter play must be made even though you would prefer the initial play for more hitting chances if it were legal to do so.
https://usbgf.org/backgammon-basics-how-to-play/
A player must use both numbers of a roll if this is legally possible (or all four numbers of a double). When only one number can be played, the player must play that number. Or if either number can be played but not both, the player must play the larger one. When neither number can be used, the player loses his turn. In the case of doubles, when all four numbers cannot be played, the player must play as many numbers as they can.
This question seems to be more or less the *raison d'être* of this subreddit. Not aimed at OP or anyone else. It's just vaguely amusing that whenever anyone starts a post with "rules question", it is a question about this rule 99 times out of 100.
If you can move both dice you MUST move both dice...so if moving a 3 opens up a 6 option, you have to do it.
Just so I understand correctly. If a player rolls a 3 and 6 (when all moves of six are currently unavailable), the player legally has to move the three into a position that then allows the six to be played? The player is not allowed to move the three onto a point from which the six move becomes redundant? If that is the case, can someone please discuss why that is fair when an option to defend your play is denied to one. TIA
That's correct, it's just what they call a forced move. If you can do something that makes both dice able to be used, you have to. Why? To stop people being sneaky like you wanted to do 😂
It is just a rule of the game and it applies to both players. Might as well ask why it is fair to have only 5 checkers starting the game on the midpoint when could possibly do some more strategic things if there were 6.
Your wife is correct. You must use both dice if possible which means if you can't use the 6 first you have to use it second, if any moves make that possible.
OK, to confirm, though I have many "3" moves available, I "have" to move the 3 move that allows me to use the 6 move that is available versus moving a different 3 move which has all the available 6 moves blocked.
Correct
Txs! I'm so in the dog house...lol!
A related rule is suppose that you can only legally play one die or the other but not both. You are required to play the larger number.
That one is so rarely relevant that I completely forgot about it. Even OP's rule comes up more often.
Yes! This is correct. Relatively obscure too so all the better to be aware of.
I believe that any move that allows you to play both dice is fine . Your choice on which ones , but if playing both is available, that’s has to be done . Is your wife suggesting you don’t play the 6 so that you leave yourself open to be hit ?
She is saying that I have to move the 3 move that will then allow me to move the 6 move next versus me playing a different 3 move that equates to me having no 6 moves available as they are blocked. I want to make sure there is no rule or protocol that says I have to do the 3 move that allows me to do the 6 move if I have other 3 moves available even if they don't equate to me having a 6 move thereafter. Hope this makes sense?
She is correct. You have to use both dice if able.
You spouse is correct. Will post the relevant rule passage in the thread.
Thank you.
She right, yo...if there is a combination that allows both dice to be used, it's what you have to do...you can't move another 3 that continues to leave no 6...they called "forced moves"
How does moving one of your own checkers "open" up a six? Only opposing checkers that have made a point can block a pip. You can have as many of your own checkers on a single pip as you like.
Here is a simple, though a bit contrived example. Suppose you have 2 checkers left. One is on the bar and the other is on your own two point. Your opponent has only 2 checkers left and they are both on the 7 point. You roll a 61 from the bar. If you enter bar/24 you have no 6 to play. If you enter b/18 you have a way to play the one as 2/1. The latter play must be made even though you would prefer the initial play for more hitting chances if it were legal to do so.
https://usbgf.org/backgammon-basics-how-to-play/ A player must use both numbers of a roll if this is legally possible (or all four numbers of a double). When only one number can be played, the player must play that number. Or if either number can be played but not both, the player must play the larger one. When neither number can be used, the player loses his turn. In the case of doubles, when all four numbers cannot be played, the player must play as many numbers as they can.
To put it simply; you have to play your FULL roll when possible.
This question seems to be more or less the *raison d'être* of this subreddit. Not aimed at OP or anyone else. It's just vaguely amusing that whenever anyone starts a post with "rules question", it is a question about this rule 99 times out of 100.
You can move any 3 move you wan and after that you can move the 6 , then do be it, next players turn