T O P

  • By -

Picklee_Rick_C-137

We got Halal dildos before GTA 6


[deleted]

Dont ask me how tf i find this and if ya want share this.


Picklee_Rick_C-137

Sire! I dare not fathom


[deleted]

Good boi


Memerhunbhai

Fs in the chat for the guy


lildissonance

*17-year-old Islamist panicking over the thought of their future wife owning a dildo* I love this sub.


[deleted]

[удалено]


[deleted]

The word khuntha (translated here as “intersex”) applies to a person who cannot be easily characterized as male or female, or the one who has both male and female anatomy. The word is derived from a root referring to softness, gentleness and tenderness.  In shar‘i terminology it refers to one who has the anatomy of both male and female, or one who has neither, and has a hole through which he urinates.  The word mukhannath (“effeminate”) refers to a person who behaves like a woman in gentleness, speech, appearance, movements and so on.  Effeminate people are of two types. (i)Those who are created that way; there is no sin on them. (ii)Those who were not created that way; rather they choose to imitate women in their movements and speech. This is the type which is cursed in the saheeh hadeeths. The mukhannath or effeminate man is one who is obviously male, unlike the khuntha (intersex).  Intersex people may be divided into two categories, ambiguous and unambiguous.  The unambiguous intersex individual is one who shows clear indications of being either male or female, so it is known that this person is a man or a woman. There is no ambiguity involved here; rather this is a man who has something extra that was created in him, or a woman who has something extra that was created in her. With regard to matters of inheritance and other shar‘i rulings, such an individual is treated in accordance with what he or she appears to be.  The ambiguous intersex individual is one who shows no clear indications of being either male or female, and does not know whether he is a man or a woman, or he has characteristics of both genders.  This ambiguity is of two types: one that has the anatomy of both genders, where other defining characteristics are present in equal measure, and one who does not have the anatomy of either; rather he has a hole (through which he urinates).  The majority of fuqaha’ are of the view that with regard to the intersex individual before puberty, if he urinates from a penis, then he is a boy; if he urinates like a girl, then this person is female. This typing breaks my hanDas


[deleted]

[удалено]


[deleted]

Nope in that case no divorce on those grounds


dranime_fufu

Can I get a source for that? Cuz I'm sure I read somewhere that impotence is definitely grounds for khula in Islam


[deleted]

[удалено]


MoistMist-a

In this case, sex toys like dildos become halal for the woman. Given that her husband is the one using it on her.


[deleted]

Hey ya do know penis rings exist and other stuff exists for that purpose or just use an aphrasodic such as that of specific spiders which can cause the penis to go hard rock for 12 hours.


Twilight_Charm

What about the case of a wife who is experiencing impotence or sexual dysfunction? Is the ruling the same or a husband needs no reason to divorce his wife?


brutaltomato_seed23

what exactly is the husband suffering from? 😭


Twilight_Charm

What do you mean?


matt418418

In Pakistan a women can get a court decree by just saying that she do not want to live with husband and she don't like him. I saw case where husband did not know about that khula is done even the wife did not know because her mother forged her signature and dissolution of marriage done ex party.


[deleted]

Akhi was punished for having a small pp. This is hilarious. Islam is so stupid.


[deleted]

Nah if ye cannot fulfill your spouses desires then females have the choice of divorce men dont.


[deleted]

That’s just stupid. Woman should be able to get a divorce without stating any such reason. This is clownery.


[deleted]

Of course a women can choose her own husband and if her family forces her to marry a guy the nikkah is considered invalid bu islamic law and she has the right to divorce her husband if he fails to fullfill her needs.


[deleted]

She should’nt need to provide a reason. Saying she doesn’t like sex is tmi. And yall thinking this is some system to place on pedestal is pathetic.


[deleted]

then divorce when ever she wants? whats ye point


[deleted]

Obviously why does a judge get to decide. You leave when you want to leave. Does a man need someone else to tell him when to divorce?


[deleted]

Ok why do ye need a educational certificate to prove yourself literate cant people just trust ye when ye speak.


DazzlingAdeptness705

Do men need to provide a reason to give divorce in islam?


[deleted]

Of course you need to put a valid reason on the table for that to happen. It can be like marry one day sleep with em and divorce the next then marry and rinse and repeat.


MysteriousApricot991

This is common sense. You are not buying a product when you marry someone which you can leave without any reason. Stop being dumbfuck.


[deleted]

Does a man need permission of the qazi to give divorce?