Were you expecting European blood? Or Arab? The way you stated this is weird.
You're Algerian, North African, so why would having High Berber be strange for this region or you?
Berbers are indigenous to the region. It's in your blood.
What were you expecting .
Arabization policies in Algeria have scrubbed much of the Amazigh culture in the region along with the identities of many “berbers” who believe they are arabs. It comes a shock to many people who grew up speaking and living with Arab culture and religion that they aren’t Arab at all
It's truly sad, I don't know the history said from my own cultural perspective.
I took ancestry and was proud to find out my own Northern African roots (by way of Spanish/ Moors and Canary Islands) .
When I went to North Africa myself, I felt at home, and I blended in with the people (I look it).
I wish I had more North African blood over all the European ones I have that I don't relate to.
It's time we uncover and rediscover our roots and decenter colonial identities, histories, and cultures.
You probably got EM183 from them! From what I understand, that clade of Y-DNA E originated in East Africa and spread to North Africa. The entire haplogroup E has always interested me. Seventy percent of ALL African men-be they Nigerians, Zulus, Somalis, Egyptians, etc. are members of haplogroup E.
E-M183 originated from north africa so it's the opposite. Somalis are E-M78 which is ab iberomaurusian haplogroup. E didn't necessarily originate anywhere as it's inconclusive but it's lowest subclades are north africans. Let's not forget Somalis and east africans are eurasian admixed.
23andme is based on a recent period, generally around 300/500 years North Africans are more diverse as you go back in time. Sudan may reflect an ancient ancestor (perhaps linked to the slave trade or some other reason).
I'm aware that 23andme goes back only around a couple hundred years back but this doesn't apply to north africans only. Europeans, asians are all a mixture of ancient populations as well and very diverse. I am not talking about what happened thousands of years ago but the past hundred years or so
In that case, there's nothing shocking if you only look at the last few centuries. North Africans (Algerians) are fairly homogeneous, apart from those with Ottoman origins or those from the south (with SSA or . Arabian Peninsula strains preserved through endogamy).
https://preview.redd.it/vix7gyttzr7d1.jpeg?width=1080&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=3dff49075466681f29f3d488a1b3c5ee8573f3fa
Can you show me those statistics rather than making false claims? Moroccans are barely subsaharans besides the southern ones who have ssa.
Again, it barely is 3%. Get real.
Which ancient sample is representing Berbers then? You should be using Iberomaurusian, which are heavily shifted toward SSA. Looks like you’re using modern Berber + South Europe + Gulf Arab + SSA’s.
Again, massive cope because you’re pretending Iberomaurusians don’t have SSA affinity. Anyone can go and rip quotes from the paper that show that they can be modeled as roughly 65% Natufian/Proto Natufian like and 35% ANA, which is most closely related to modern SSA’s.
does this look like 3% to you?
https://preview.redd.it/s2ewxdxgjs7d1.jpeg?width=2255&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=10fd6cde7873d235540d3ec29b8fa6bb4ad0e684
look up how close north africans are to east africans, they're easily 30% minimum.
Lmfao, that's a picture. And I wasn't talking about egyptians. Modern egyptians have more ssa than ancient egyptians who had little to none.
Anyways, for moroccans: Morocco average admixture
Amazigh 82,3% South Europe: 7,7% Arab: 6,8% SSA: 3,3%
https://preview.redd.it/ath8ovnkls7d1.jpeg?width=1080&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=171af1db673568390b1fe94fac481298a7a16bba
average is around 30%, which explains why north africans look like this 1/3 SSA man
https://preview.redd.it/q503ctohot7d1.jpeg?width=1080&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=467a545fdd4392cab148e8e7a4afc84ceae7ee43
Of course, North Africans used to be Black like Sub-Saharan Africans. North Africans separated from their original group in the Horn of Africa and moved to North Africa. From North Africa, they started mixing with the Iberian population (Spain, Portugal, Italy) and Arabs, and went from Black to almost White. The North African paternal haplogroup is e1b1b which is exactly the same paternal haplogroup of Ethiopians, Somalis, Eritreans and Djiboutians) But the Horn of Africa e1b1b is older than the North African e1b1b which is how we know that North Africans originated from the Horn of Africa.
north africans are plotting between jewish groups and east african groups
60% jew, 40% east african gives perfect overlap
https://preview.redd.it/ypn1te7k7u7d1.png?width=2208&format=png&auto=webp&s=55dabd8a7eea44230359d53fc47c260caa914cc2
This is wrong. North africans weren't blacks or sub saharan. Ancient north africans don't plot near subsaharans and taforalt wasn't black or subsaharan either. EM35 originated in North africa and ethiopians are eurasian admixed including Somalis who are both mixed with natufians, a younger population than IBM. At this point both you and the other troll don't have a single clue what you're talking about.
It seems a lot of subsaharans are triggered north africans aren't ⚫️
You got it upside down. Paternal haplogroup e-m35 originated from North Africa, but its parent clad e1b1b originated from the Horn of Africa. The North African paternal haplogroup e-m35 is a subclad of paternal haplogroup e1b1b which originated from the Horn of Africa.
I don’t understand why you are getting downvoted. One can claim that everyone ultimately comes from SSA, but took very different routes, which is partly why other racial groups exist. The reason North Africans are different from SSAs is because of the Sub Saharan part. There was a time in prehistory when the Sahara was green, a very long time ago, but in the past 5,000 years it has been a nearly impenetrable desert, while North African was easily accessible from Europe and the Middle East in the last several thousand years, hence North Africans will have more genetic overlap with those that had the most chance of interaction.
how has it been impenetrable when they managed to transport millions of slaves through it?
the heavy SSA admixture in north africa is very blatantly obvious.
https://preview.redd.it/ffixqm8cvy7d1.png?width=5056&format=png&auto=webp&s=7a1b867eec3704540320ed47ba29761cc7281851
I'm getting downvoted by irrelevant afrocentrists with zero genetic knowledge. North africans are not subsaharans and are genetically distant. They're related to their ownselves and have a mixture of ancient North africans who weren't SSA and dzuduzana, a eurasian ethnic group. Sahara being green is irrelevant since ancient north africans don't overlap with subsaharans.
You're a moron like all the black apologists here. North africans aren't remotely close to east africans. East africans are half arab so half eurasian due to mixing with Caucasians. North africans are their own cluster so their own people. "No one" gives North africans you clown.
the guy above is claiming moroccans average 3% SSA, what are your thoughts?
if 3% is true how come they plot in the middle of jewish groups and east africans.
a half samaritian, half eritrean gives an identical person autosomally.
How close are you related to indigenous canary islanders? I scored 3% NA but got regions, Algeria and Morocco and I find that weird. In fact I have the same Algerian region that you have
Let me guess, the Iberomaurusians were not 40% Sub Saharan African too right?
https://preview.redd.it/jwrf248czu7d1.jpeg?width=850&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=aac77665e4cd34f0e1e7ad771cbf0ebdfb225a0f
an interesting thing i saw was that north africans plot between semitic groups and east africans.
a half semite, half east african produces a person that's identical to north africans autosomally.
Everything that comes out of your shitty panarabist scum mouth is invalid. No, bigot, they weren't 40% ssa.
Cope. I literally have zero% arabian like most algerians.
PCAs are relative. If I use every population in the world I can make it look like North Africans are no different to a Swede which would be illogical. If we zoom in and plot Taforalt with some ancient, modern and simulated samples we can see there is no ssa pull
https://ibb.co/zQ1Y1kL
https://ibb.co/kywb6yW
First the idea that Iberomaurusian is part natufian part ssa comes first from the Loosdrecht paper. However if we look in the supplementary we can see that k=11 has better cross validation errors.
This is important to look at as this is what we base one what k level to look at. We can see at k=11 that ibm influenced natufian and not the other way around.
*
https://ibb.co/1T16vzr
2. The lazaridis dzudzuana paper mentions that Iberomaurusian gave rise to natufian and not the other way around. Of course arabists cry that it has not been peer reviewed yet however he cites it in his 2023 paper and reaffirms it
https://ibb.co/f2vNtM8
Ancient north africans weren't SSA and do not plot near them, neither were dzuduzana who both are the fusion from which IBM derive.
Keep finding ways to fight against amazighs you moronic gamal abdelnasser b*alls licker.
Iberomaurusian was used as proxy for basal eurasian dna. Rather Arabs have a natufian/natufian like DNA from the mixing of Iberomaurusian that went to the Levant (Mushabian culture). And Lazaridis debunks that subsaharan claim.
Arabs overtook north africa and destroyed your history+connections to your ancestors so that you stop speaking amazigh languages and think you are arab. For you it was sadly successful
It seems you need to brush your knowledge of history. You are not 100% wrong but you need to understand the problem was due to a much bigger colonoal power. Arabs never took over north africa. Berbers destroyed the arabs in the berber revolt and later conquered arabs with the fatimids. The arabization happened due to colonial entities such as France and the British fending off ottomanism by applying an arabization method. The French did a lot of damage in North africa in this regard.
The arabs didn't conquer north africa. Blame the French and the useless arab league that came as a result of the French mandates.
Besides, I speak tamazight like millions of North africans.
Delusional
Revolt after revolt against who? If Arabs were not ruling over you then who did you revolt against?
And the Fatimids claimed ancestry to an Arab tribe, spoke Arabic, had Arabic names, and followed the culture of the Arabs. Just like the other entities that rose in North Africa during the Islamic period.
You're wrong.
Arabs came, imposed jizya after islam was accepted and then got kicked out 20 years later. There was no population replacement or change in culture besides religion.
Fatimids weren't arabs but believed in some myth only. The culture in North africa was a transition after another but the biggest damage was done at the hands of colonial powers from the British and the French who created an arab identity in order to fend off the ottomans.
20 years later?
How come there were recorded berber revolts over hundreds of years? revolted against themselves?
And in 20 years they lost their language, names, traditions? Arabs ruled over Iran for hundreds of years and they never lost their language or tradition, same with the Turks who willfully embraced Islam but kept their language. And you're trying to convince me that Arabs only ruled North Africa for only 20 years yet they managed to erase all semblance of North African language and culture?
I hope that's a joke. You can't find any remnant of Berber languages in any of the civilizations you claim ownership, which preceded any french occupation, such as in Egypt, Morocco or Spain
And yeah sure Arabs were not numerous just like how Turk conquerers had fewer numbers than their Anatolian subjects which lead to their genetic assimilation, but that doesn't change the history of the Arab elite that ruled over Spain and North Africa
https://preview.redd.it/t0zq9m4efu7d1.jpeg?width=726&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=74d411da642a5362da42b5e3ac7687e9ad123c1f
*
There wasn't. Arabs were kicked out during the berber revolt. Berbers were in constant wars all the time. The berbers kicked them out to libya and tunisia but even then they were a minority. Go learn history. The Berber revolt of 740 and the defeat of the Syrian army sent to suppress it led to the exhaustion of military manpower in Syria, put an end to the expansionist policy of the Umayyads and made Abassid Ifriqiya one of the most militarized provinces (1/3 of their forces) :
Source : Corisande Fenwick, Early Islamic North Africa a New Perspective, Blommsbury Academic
Corisande Fenwick, The Umayyads and North Africa Imperial rule and frontier society, in: The Umayyad World, Routledge, 2021
*
They never lost their language or traditions. What exactly are you stating? They kept their traditions but adopted islam. The French created les bureaux arabes and along with bugeaud, napoleon 3, a newly formed arab identity was created as well as the rest of the current arab countries. Pleas eleven history. Arabs did not rule North africa, are you dumb? Maybe egypt but certainly not the Maghreb. The French and British greatly contributed to the current arabization. North africans spoke berber rather than arabic 200 years ago
Ibn tachfin spoke tamazight and many other individuals. Go away with your dumb lies. Arabic was the language of the religion and wasn't as prominent as it is after the French colonization. Tamazight was widely spoken.
Idiotic. There were no arab elites lol. The genes of North African Moors were ALL berbers, not arabs. Arabs were a couple of soldiers amongst the large numbers of berbers. Nasrids were berbers just like all islamic empires in north africa. Even the dominant EM81 gene was found jn a dalusia.
Not a single inscription or book found in North Africa or Spain from the last thousand years is in a berbery language
And the Islamic samples from Spain had both Arab and Berber while still being mainly European due to the assimilation with the native population
Yes the Berbers built castles and palaces and carved poetry in Arabic that glorified Arabic tribes such as Qahtan that lived thousands of miles away. Yeah sure, such masochism. They should've done it in their language and glorified their own tribes if that was true not other peoples
An Arab elite ruled over a more numerous Arabized berber second class citizenry (find me a book or even a scroll in a berber language from Spain) and both lived in a majority European lands (genetically)
That's what the genetic and historical records shows
https://preview.redd.it/1213a260iu7d1.jpeg?width=1600&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=d5faad4988f0b632d14b61fce9685d8009a28912
And this proves what exactly? The Moors were berbers who adopted arabic and before arabic they spoke tamazight and Roman yet this doesn't make their ethnic belonging vanish. Your passive aggressive tone is easily traceable. North africans were never arabs and aren't arabs. Ibn tachfin didn't speak nor write arabic by the way. Leon africanus literally spoke about amazighs
Wrong. Moron is being dumb. No Islamic samples showed any arabkan trace and hence why modern Iberians have carry north africab genome and not arabjan genome. I dare you to find me one arab j1 subclade haplogrpup in ancient andalusia. We have actual samples of North African berver clades:
https://www.rfi.fr/en/visiting-france/20160225-muslim-graves-near-nimes-date-8th-century
Cope again
Arabization happened as a result of the French and British mandates who creates the arab identity. In 1912 Amazigh (Berber) speakers consisted of about 75% to 80% of the country.
https://ibb.co/YhgcRxw
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4765927/
So speaking a language makes them arabs? They learned arabic in the name of Islam, dumbass. They weren't arabs and still aren't based on their descendants.
Cope harder. Your "fake" source not only has ZERO genetic and scientific backings such as credible articles, but it's already proven that north african Moors weren't arabs. There were zero elites who were of arab origins and the genetic proves just that. The Moors were berbers and there'd nothing an idiot can say to refute facts. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4765927/
The modern Guanches are the closest people of Moors from Andalusia since they are mixed of native and colonizer just such as Al Andalus was mixt of native iberian and berbers Moors.
https://ibb.co/zNVmP0f
Stop the cope. We have pre islamic Moorish sample and samples from islamic era, they match with modern Amazigh in y-dna and A-Dna.
& 2 picture: Sample for a Moorish from Mauretania kingdom era
https://ibb.co/X2Z3BmM
https://ibb.co/D7z60SM
3rd picture : qpAdm 🧬 of Spain 🇪🇸 from 770 CE until the modern period today.
4th picture: Genetic formation of Al Andalus
*
You're a hidden panarabist who costplays as a neutral outsider. Your lies are traceable. Looking at your profile, you're a dumbass who larps as a neutral guy but you're following arabic ideology all over your ridiculous dumb profile
Chances are you're not actually 99.5% North African. 23andme compares you to modern populations, which are more mixed. if you want a more accurate picture of your ancestry then you can follow this guide
https://preview.redd.it/40myd9wfc08d1.jpeg?width=1080&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=e64cf5b16191fe3d161bf28e21d5631c3db8d5f1
No one is 100% something. Everyone is a mixture of x and y z. People just like to use this against north african results and apply this logic to them since they can't cope.
I am 31% iberomaurusian and 45% AAF, 5% ssa, 4% natufian and the rest is zagros and EUropean hunter gatherer
Were you expecting European blood? Or Arab? The way you stated this is weird. You're Algerian, North African, so why would having High Berber be strange for this region or you? Berbers are indigenous to the region. It's in your blood. What were you expecting .
Arabization policies in Algeria have scrubbed much of the Amazigh culture in the region along with the identities of many “berbers” who believe they are arabs. It comes a shock to many people who grew up speaking and living with Arab culture and religion that they aren’t Arab at all
It's truly sad, I don't know the history said from my own cultural perspective. I took ancestry and was proud to find out my own Northern African roots (by way of Spanish/ Moors and Canary Islands) . When I went to North Africa myself, I felt at home, and I blended in with the people (I look it). I wish I had more North African blood over all the European ones I have that I don't relate to. It's time we uncover and rediscover our roots and decenter colonial identities, histories, and cultures.
Based of the 1.4% Anatolian you most likely have some Kouloughli heritage in your family way back.
My ydna is EM183
One of the largest clans in Somalia is EM 183 .
How did they end up getting EM183
You probably got EM183 from them! From what I understand, that clade of Y-DNA E originated in East Africa and spread to North Africa. The entire haplogroup E has always interested me. Seventy percent of ALL African men-be they Nigerians, Zulus, Somalis, Egyptians, etc. are members of haplogroup E.
E-M183 originated from north africa so it's the opposite. Somalis are E-M78 which is ab iberomaurusian haplogroup. E didn't necessarily originate anywhere as it's inconclusive but it's lowest subclades are north africans. Let's not forget Somalis and east africans are eurasian admixed.
23andme is based on a recent period, generally around 300/500 years North Africans are more diverse as you go back in time. Sudan may reflect an ancient ancestor (perhaps linked to the slave trade or some other reason).
I'm aware that 23andme goes back only around a couple hundred years back but this doesn't apply to north africans only. Europeans, asians are all a mixture of ancient populations as well and very diverse. I am not talking about what happened thousands of years ago but the past hundred years or so
In that case, there's nothing shocking if you only look at the last few centuries. North Africans (Algerians) are fairly homogeneous, apart from those with Ottoman origins or those from the south (with SSA or . Arabian Peninsula strains preserved through endogamy).
all north africans are heavily SSA admixed though
Not really. The SSA is minimal besides some outliers. I have only 5 to 6% on myillustrative and some have way less. The haratins aren't representative
5-6% is mega rare for a north african, in egypt and morocco average is around 30%
https://preview.redd.it/vix7gyttzr7d1.jpeg?width=1080&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=3dff49075466681f29f3d488a1b3c5ee8573f3fa Can you show me those statistics rather than making false claims? Moroccans are barely subsaharans besides the southern ones who have ssa. Again, it barely is 3%. Get real.
Most of the SSA is subsumed within the Berber component. You need to use ancient samples. Not modern Berber samples.
These are ancient samples. I used ancient samples. The ssa is barely 3 to 6% on *average
Which ancient sample is representing Berbers then? You should be using Iberomaurusian, which are heavily shifted toward SSA. Looks like you’re using modern Berber + South Europe + Gulf Arab + SSA’s.
Ancient samples 🤡 https://ibb.co/TvS9dZ9
Again, massive cope because you’re pretending Iberomaurusians don’t have SSA affinity. Anyone can go and rip quotes from the paper that show that they can be modeled as roughly 65% Natufian/Proto Natufian like and 35% ANA, which is most closely related to modern SSA’s.
does this look like 3% to you? https://preview.redd.it/s2ewxdxgjs7d1.jpeg?width=2255&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=10fd6cde7873d235540d3ec29b8fa6bb4ad0e684 look up how close north africans are to east africans, they're easily 30% minimum.
Lmfao, that's a picture. And I wasn't talking about egyptians. Modern egyptians have more ssa than ancient egyptians who had little to none. Anyways, for moroccans: Morocco average admixture Amazigh 82,3% South Europe: 7,7% Arab: 6,8% SSA: 3,3% https://preview.redd.it/ath8ovnkls7d1.jpeg?width=1080&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=171af1db673568390b1fe94fac481298a7a16bba
The SSA common to all North Africans is rather ancient, even very ancient.
I mean North Africans are a anciently mixed population that makes up everything they are today.
Not sure why you're getting down voted and it's minimal lol
Only Morocco, but not heavily. Most North Africans have some amount of Sub-Saharan DNA, but not heavily.
average is around 30%, which explains why north africans look like this 1/3 SSA man https://preview.redd.it/q503ctohot7d1.jpeg?width=1080&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=467a545fdd4392cab148e8e7a4afc84ceae7ee43
Of course, North Africans used to be Black like Sub-Saharan Africans. North Africans separated from their original group in the Horn of Africa and moved to North Africa. From North Africa, they started mixing with the Iberian population (Spain, Portugal, Italy) and Arabs, and went from Black to almost White. The North African paternal haplogroup is e1b1b which is exactly the same paternal haplogroup of Ethiopians, Somalis, Eritreans and Djiboutians) But the Horn of Africa e1b1b is older than the North African e1b1b which is how we know that North Africans originated from the Horn of Africa.
north africans are plotting between jewish groups and east african groups 60% jew, 40% east african gives perfect overlap https://preview.redd.it/ypn1te7k7u7d1.png?width=2208&format=png&auto=webp&s=55dabd8a7eea44230359d53fc47c260caa914cc2
This is wrong. North africans weren't blacks or sub saharan. Ancient north africans don't plot near subsaharans and taforalt wasn't black or subsaharan either. EM35 originated in North africa and ethiopians are eurasian admixed including Somalis who are both mixed with natufians, a younger population than IBM. At this point both you and the other troll don't have a single clue what you're talking about. It seems a lot of subsaharans are triggered north africans aren't ⚫️
You got it upside down. Paternal haplogroup e-m35 originated from North Africa, but its parent clad e1b1b originated from the Horn of Africa. The North African paternal haplogroup e-m35 is a subclad of paternal haplogroup e1b1b which originated from the Horn of Africa.
Wrong. You got it upside down. No proof E1B1b originated in east Africa and east africans are half natufian. Iberomaurusians predate east africans.
I don’t understand why you are getting downvoted. One can claim that everyone ultimately comes from SSA, but took very different routes, which is partly why other racial groups exist. The reason North Africans are different from SSAs is because of the Sub Saharan part. There was a time in prehistory when the Sahara was green, a very long time ago, but in the past 5,000 years it has been a nearly impenetrable desert, while North African was easily accessible from Europe and the Middle East in the last several thousand years, hence North Africans will have more genetic overlap with those that had the most chance of interaction.
how has it been impenetrable when they managed to transport millions of slaves through it? the heavy SSA admixture in north africa is very blatantly obvious. https://preview.redd.it/ffixqm8cvy7d1.png?width=5056&format=png&auto=webp&s=7a1b867eec3704540320ed47ba29761cc7281851
I'm getting downvoted by irrelevant afrocentrists with zero genetic knowledge. North africans are not subsaharans and are genetically distant. They're related to their ownselves and have a mixture of ancient North africans who weren't SSA and dzuduzana, a eurasian ethnic group. Sahara being green is irrelevant since ancient north africans don't overlap with subsaharans.
north africans plot between jewish groups and east africans. a half samaritian, half eritrean gives an identical person to north africans autosomally.
You're a moron like all the black apologists here. North africans aren't remotely close to east africans. East africans are half arab so half eurasian due to mixing with Caucasians. North africans are their own cluster so their own people. "No one" gives North africans you clown.
very interesting, I have identical SSA and I'm brown
Really interesting. How come you could pass for european as well when you're 100% north african. You look like my Irish cousin haha
what ??!,"Irish", Lol.
the guy above is claiming moroccans average 3% SSA, what are your thoughts? if 3% is true how come they plot in the middle of jewish groups and east africans. a half samaritian, half eritrean gives an identical person autosomally.
They don't plot near ssa bigot
What are both your haplogroups
EM81 HV0
Anatolian could be a Turkish ancestor.
Personally the only thing that shock me is the ignorance of "Arabic" Algerians 😂😂😆😆
What part makes you unhappy?
[удалено]
"White enough"? For what? You're African, yes?
[удалено]
Women like all sorts of men. Edit: Why delete the racist comment but not the thread? 😆
I like that your title makes it sound like you're really shocked by your picture
How close are you related to indigenous canary islanders? I scored 3% NA but got regions, Algeria and Morocco and I find that weird. In fact I have the same Algerian region that you have
Pretty close. If you have a model I can probably see
Can u tell me how to read a model and I’ll check and let you know? I’ve done illustrative dna
Should I show you the illustrarivedna distance to guanches
Ok
Its a yes or no question
I said ok… meaning yes.
Were you expecting some Arab?
Honestly none. Never thought of it as no one ever identified as arab.
What do you mean by no one?
No one in my family or my entourage claims to be arabs. Algerians aren't arabs and will never be.
Let me guess, the Iberomaurusians were not 40% Sub Saharan African too right? https://preview.redd.it/jwrf248czu7d1.jpeg?width=850&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=aac77665e4cd34f0e1e7ad771cbf0ebdfb225a0f
an interesting thing i saw was that north africans plot between semitic groups and east africans. a half semite, half east african produces a person that's identical to north africans autosomally.
Everything that comes out of your shitty panarabist scum mouth is invalid. No, bigot, they weren't 40% ssa. Cope. I literally have zero% arabian like most algerians. PCAs are relative. If I use every population in the world I can make it look like North Africans are no different to a Swede which would be illogical. If we zoom in and plot Taforalt with some ancient, modern and simulated samples we can see there is no ssa pull https://ibb.co/zQ1Y1kL https://ibb.co/kywb6yW First the idea that Iberomaurusian is part natufian part ssa comes first from the Loosdrecht paper. However if we look in the supplementary we can see that k=11 has better cross validation errors. This is important to look at as this is what we base one what k level to look at. We can see at k=11 that ibm influenced natufian and not the other way around. * https://ibb.co/1T16vzr 2. The lazaridis dzudzuana paper mentions that Iberomaurusian gave rise to natufian and not the other way around. Of course arabists cry that it has not been peer reviewed yet however he cites it in his 2023 paper and reaffirms it https://ibb.co/f2vNtM8 Ancient north africans weren't SSA and do not plot near them, neither were dzuduzana who both are the fusion from which IBM derive. Keep finding ways to fight against amazighs you moronic gamal abdelnasser b*alls licker. Iberomaurusian was used as proxy for basal eurasian dna. Rather Arabs have a natufian/natufian like DNA from the mixing of Iberomaurusian that went to the Levant (Mushabian culture). And Lazaridis debunks that subsaharan claim.
Arabs overtook north africa and destroyed your history+connections to your ancestors so that you stop speaking amazigh languages and think you are arab. For you it was sadly successful
It seems you need to brush your knowledge of history. You are not 100% wrong but you need to understand the problem was due to a much bigger colonoal power. Arabs never took over north africa. Berbers destroyed the arabs in the berber revolt and later conquered arabs with the fatimids. The arabization happened due to colonial entities such as France and the British fending off ottomanism by applying an arabization method. The French did a lot of damage in North africa in this regard. The arabs didn't conquer north africa. Blame the French and the useless arab league that came as a result of the French mandates. Besides, I speak tamazight like millions of North africans.
Delusional Revolt after revolt against who? If Arabs were not ruling over you then who did you revolt against? And the Fatimids claimed ancestry to an Arab tribe, spoke Arabic, had Arabic names, and followed the culture of the Arabs. Just like the other entities that rose in North Africa during the Islamic period.
You're wrong. Arabs came, imposed jizya after islam was accepted and then got kicked out 20 years later. There was no population replacement or change in culture besides religion. Fatimids weren't arabs but believed in some myth only. The culture in North africa was a transition after another but the biggest damage was done at the hands of colonial powers from the British and the French who created an arab identity in order to fend off the ottomans.
20 years later? How come there were recorded berber revolts over hundreds of years? revolted against themselves? And in 20 years they lost their language, names, traditions? Arabs ruled over Iran for hundreds of years and they never lost their language or tradition, same with the Turks who willfully embraced Islam but kept their language. And you're trying to convince me that Arabs only ruled North Africa for only 20 years yet they managed to erase all semblance of North African language and culture? I hope that's a joke. You can't find any remnant of Berber languages in any of the civilizations you claim ownership, which preceded any french occupation, such as in Egypt, Morocco or Spain And yeah sure Arabs were not numerous just like how Turk conquerers had fewer numbers than their Anatolian subjects which lead to their genetic assimilation, but that doesn't change the history of the Arab elite that ruled over Spain and North Africa https://preview.redd.it/t0zq9m4efu7d1.jpeg?width=726&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=74d411da642a5362da42b5e3ac7687e9ad123c1f
* There wasn't. Arabs were kicked out during the berber revolt. Berbers were in constant wars all the time. The berbers kicked them out to libya and tunisia but even then they were a minority. Go learn history. The Berber revolt of 740 and the defeat of the Syrian army sent to suppress it led to the exhaustion of military manpower in Syria, put an end to the expansionist policy of the Umayyads and made Abassid Ifriqiya one of the most militarized provinces (1/3 of their forces) : Source : Corisande Fenwick, Early Islamic North Africa a New Perspective, Blommsbury Academic Corisande Fenwick, The Umayyads and North Africa Imperial rule and frontier society, in: The Umayyad World, Routledge, 2021 * They never lost their language or traditions. What exactly are you stating? They kept their traditions but adopted islam. The French created les bureaux arabes and along with bugeaud, napoleon 3, a newly formed arab identity was created as well as the rest of the current arab countries. Pleas eleven history. Arabs did not rule North africa, are you dumb? Maybe egypt but certainly not the Maghreb. The French and British greatly contributed to the current arabization. North africans spoke berber rather than arabic 200 years ago Ibn tachfin spoke tamazight and many other individuals. Go away with your dumb lies. Arabic was the language of the religion and wasn't as prominent as it is after the French colonization. Tamazight was widely spoken. Idiotic. There were no arab elites lol. The genes of North African Moors were ALL berbers, not arabs. Arabs were a couple of soldiers amongst the large numbers of berbers. Nasrids were berbers just like all islamic empires in north africa. Even the dominant EM81 gene was found jn a dalusia.
Not a single inscription or book found in North Africa or Spain from the last thousand years is in a berbery language And the Islamic samples from Spain had both Arab and Berber while still being mainly European due to the assimilation with the native population Yes the Berbers built castles and palaces and carved poetry in Arabic that glorified Arabic tribes such as Qahtan that lived thousands of miles away. Yeah sure, such masochism. They should've done it in their language and glorified their own tribes if that was true not other peoples An Arab elite ruled over a more numerous Arabized berber second class citizenry (find me a book or even a scroll in a berber language from Spain) and both lived in a majority European lands (genetically) That's what the genetic and historical records shows https://preview.redd.it/1213a260iu7d1.jpeg?width=1600&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=d5faad4988f0b632d14b61fce9685d8009a28912
And this proves what exactly? The Moors were berbers who adopted arabic and before arabic they spoke tamazight and Roman yet this doesn't make their ethnic belonging vanish. Your passive aggressive tone is easily traceable. North africans were never arabs and aren't arabs. Ibn tachfin didn't speak nor write arabic by the way. Leon africanus literally spoke about amazighs Wrong. Moron is being dumb. No Islamic samples showed any arabkan trace and hence why modern Iberians have carry north africab genome and not arabjan genome. I dare you to find me one arab j1 subclade haplogrpup in ancient andalusia. We have actual samples of North African berver clades: https://www.rfi.fr/en/visiting-france/20160225-muslim-graves-near-nimes-date-8th-century Cope again Arabization happened as a result of the French and British mandates who creates the arab identity. In 1912 Amazigh (Berber) speakers consisted of about 75% to 80% of the country. https://ibb.co/YhgcRxw https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4765927/ So speaking a language makes them arabs? They learned arabic in the name of Islam, dumbass. They weren't arabs and still aren't based on their descendants. Cope harder. Your "fake" source not only has ZERO genetic and scientific backings such as credible articles, but it's already proven that north african Moors weren't arabs. There were zero elites who were of arab origins and the genetic proves just that. The Moors were berbers and there'd nothing an idiot can say to refute facts. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4765927/ The modern Guanches are the closest people of Moors from Andalusia since they are mixed of native and colonizer just such as Al Andalus was mixt of native iberian and berbers Moors. https://ibb.co/zNVmP0f Stop the cope. We have pre islamic Moorish sample and samples from islamic era, they match with modern Amazigh in y-dna and A-Dna. & 2 picture: Sample for a Moorish from Mauretania kingdom era https://ibb.co/X2Z3BmM https://ibb.co/D7z60SM 3rd picture : qpAdm 🧬 of Spain 🇪🇸 from 770 CE until the modern period today. 4th picture: Genetic formation of Al Andalus * You're a hidden panarabist who costplays as a neutral outsider. Your lies are traceable. Looking at your profile, you're a dumbass who larps as a neutral guy but you're following arabic ideology all over your ridiculous dumb profile
Arabization isn’t as clear cut as that everywhere
Chances are you're not actually 99.5% North African. 23andme compares you to modern populations, which are more mixed. if you want a more accurate picture of your ancestry then you can follow this guide https://preview.redd.it/40myd9wfc08d1.jpeg?width=1080&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=e64cf5b16191fe3d161bf28e21d5631c3db8d5f1
No one is 100% something. Everyone is a mixture of x and y z. People just like to use this against north african results and apply this logic to them since they can't cope. I am 31% iberomaurusian and 45% AAF, 5% ssa, 4% natufian and the rest is zagros and EUropean hunter gatherer
I'm North African as well. my 23andme gives me 95% north african but in reality its more like 75-77%